Indian Economy MCQs
Indian Economy Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for SSC, State and all One Day Examinations of India. Objective Questions on Indian Economy for competitive examinations.
1. Which state led sugarcane production in India in 2023–24?
[A] Uttar Pradesh
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Andhra Pradesh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Uttar Pradesh]
Notes:
Uttar Pradesh contributed over 40% of India’s sugarcane output in the 2023–24 season, with an estimated 220–230 million tonnes. The state consistently leads sugarcane production due to fertile alluvial soil, reliable irrigation from the Ganga basin, and a favorable subtropical climate. Maharashtra ranked second with about 95–100 million tonnes. Data is consistent with figures up to 2024 estimates.
2. Which tax is levied exclusively by state governments in India?
[A] Entertainment Tax
[B] Wealth Tax
[C] Estate Duty
[D] Corporation Tax
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Entertainment Tax]
Notes:
Entertainment Tax is listed under Entry 62 of List II (State List) in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Only state governments could levy and collect this tax before the introduction of Goods and Services Tax in July 2017. Post-GST, most components of Entertainment Tax were subsumed under GST, but states retained powers for some local bodies and specific categories.
3. Which among the following ratios correctly denotes Money Multiplier?
[A] M3: M0
[B] M1: M3
[C] M3: M1
[D] M1: M0
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [M3: M0]
Notes:
Money multiplier is expressed as a ratio between broad money (M3) and Reserve money (M0). It refers to how an initial deposit can lead to a bigger final increase in the total money supply.
4. An investor or speculator who subscribes to a new issue with the intention of selling them soon after allotment to realize a quick profit is called?
[A] Stag
[B] Tall
[C] Bull
[D] Bear
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Stag]
Notes:
The term stag means a speculator who buys and sells stocks in short timeframes to make quick profits. The motove of stag is to make profit quickly on a fast moving trend, rather than buying and holding for the long run.
5. Which among the following authority decides upon any issues regarding the revision of fee collected as Development Fee from Airports in India?
[A] Airport Authority of India
[B] Airports Economic Regulatory Authority
[C] Ministry of Civil Aviation
[D] Secretary , Ministry of Civil Aviation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Airports Economic Regulatory Authority]
Notes:
The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) Bill 2007 ensures that the watchdog monitors performance standards of airports and regulate tariff and other charges for aeronautical services including Airport
6. Which among the following authority appoints a Deputy Governor in Reserve Bank of India?
[A] Governor of RBI
[B] Central Board of Directors
[C] Central Government
[D] Committee of the Central Board
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Central Government]
Notes:
The correct answer is “Central Government.” In India, the Deputy Governors of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) are appointed by the Central Government under Section 8 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The RBI has four Deputy Governors, and their roles include overseeing various departments such as monetary policy, financial markets, and banking regulation. This appointment process reflects the government’s influence on the central bank’s operations.
7. Consider the following statements:
- The Market Stabilization Scheme provides for issue of Treasury Bills and/or dated securities by the Government in addition to their normal market borrowing programme up to an annual aggregate ceiling.
- The money raised in Market Stabilization Fund is kept in the MSS Account as a part of Consolidated Fund of India
- The auditing of the MSS Fund is done by Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which among the above statements is / are correct?
[A] Only 1 is correct
[B] Only 1 & 2 are correct
[C] 1, 2 & 3 are correct
[D] Only 1 & 3 are correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Only 1 is correct]
Notes:
The correct answer is “Only 1 is correct.” Explanation: 1. The Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS) allows the government to issue Treasury Bills and dated securities to manage liquidity, but it does not involve a separate borrowing program beyond the normal limits. 2. The money raised under the MSS is not kept in the MSS Account as part of the Consolidated Fund of India. instead, it is maintained in a separate account. 3. While the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audits government accounts, the MSS Fund itself is not specifically audited by the CAG. Trivia Fact: The MSS was introduced in 2004 to help the Reserve Bank of India manage excess liquidity in the economy, particularly during periods of high capital inflows.
8. What does “round tripping” in FDI refer to?
[A] The use of FDI to set up subsidiaries worldwide
[B] Domestic capital routed abroad and reinvested as foreign investment
[C] Repatriation of FDI profits to the investor’s home country
[D] Cross-border flows through free trade zones without taxes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Domestic capital routed abroad and reinvested as foreign investment]
Notes:
Round tripping in FDI involves domestic capital sent to foreign jurisdictions and then returning as foreign investment. Such investments often use offshore financial centers or low-tax countries. This mechanism enables companies to claim incentives for foreign investors. It led to significant FDI inflows for countries such as India and China through countries like Mauritius and Hong Kong via special purpose vehicles.
9. Which of the following Acts mandates the Ministry of Finance to present reports on budgetary trends to Parliament?
- Constitution of India
- Finance Acts of every year
- Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
- Order of President of India
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 3
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 4
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Only 3]
Notes:
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 specifically mandates, under Section 7(1), periodic reporting by the Finance Ministry to Parliament on budget receipts and expenditures. The Constitution of India and the Finance Acts do not impose this requirement, nor does an Order of President make such reporting statutory for the Ministry of Finance.
10. Which port exports the highest value of seafood from India?
[A] Visakhapatnam
[B] Tuticorin
[C] Kochi
[D] Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPT)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Visakhapatnam]
Notes:
Visakhapatnam Port handled 2.19 billion or 29.72% of India’s seafood exports in FY24. In FY25, Visakhapatnam’s seafood export value exceeded 2 billion out of India’s total 7.45 billion. The port exported 314,199 tonnes, while JNPT exported 240,253 tonnes valued at 779.49 million. Andhra Pradesh’s aquaculture, mainly Vanammei shrimp, supports Visakhapatnam’s status as the top exporter.