Indian Polity & Constitution MCQs
Indian Polity & Constitution Objective / Multiple Choice (MCQs) Questions for Preparation of SSC-CGL, UPSC Civil Services, NDA, CDS, Railways and State Level Public Services Examinations.
1. In which year, the Government of India had set up the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State relations?
[A] 1980
[B] 1983
[C] 1987
[D] 1992
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [ 1983 ]
Notes:
Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of Constitution of India. The Commission was so named as it was headed by Justice Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. The other two members of the committee were Shri B Sivaraman and Dr SR Sen.
2. Which among the following articles speaks about impeachment of the President of India?
[A] Article 60
[B] Article 61
[C] Article 62
[D] Article 63
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Article 61]
Notes:
As per Article 61, President of India can be impeached on ground of violation of the Constitution. However what amounts to violation of the Constitution has not been defined. The process of impeachment can begin in any of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. The charges for impeachment should be signed by 1/4 members of the house in which the process begins and a notice of 14 days should be given to the President. The impeachment bill has to be passed by majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House {special majority}. One passed in that house, the bill reaches to another house, which shall investigate the charges. President has right to appear and be represented in case of such investigations. If other house also sustains those charges, then it would again need to pass the bill by special majority and thus president stands removed from the office on which the bill is passed in other house. Since it is a bill for removal of president himself, no presidential assent is needed here.
3. What is the maximum number of candidates an EVM machine can support?
[A] 36
[B] 56
[C] 64
[D] 72
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [64]
Notes:
Electronic voting machines can handle only 16 candidate choices per machine. If there are more than 16 candidates, four EVMs can be connected in series to a single master controller to handle 64 candidates.
4. Which of the following funds is charged for the salary and other allowances of the Judges of the High Courts?
[A] Consolidated fund of India
[B] Consolidated fund of state
[C] both of them in 1:1 ratio
[D] None of the above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Consolidated fund of state]
Notes:
The salary of High Court judges is charged from Consolidated Fund of State; while pension of the High Court Judges comes from Consolidated Fund of India.
5. The provision for having a Finance Commission to sort out the revenue-sharing arrangement between states and the Centre is part of the Constitution under which among the following articles?
[A] Article 275
[B] Article 280
[C] Article 282
[D] Article 285
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Article 280]
Notes:
Article 280 of the Indian Constitution defines the scope of the Finance Commission, constituted to make recommendations to the president about the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States and also the allocation of the same among the States themselves.
6. Article 20 of the Indian Constitution is an important fundamental right as it provides protection in respect of conviction for offences. Which of the following is not a safeguard under Article 20?
[A] Ex-Post facto law
[B] Double jeopardy
[C] Prohibition against self-incrimination
[D] Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours]
Notes:
Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours is a safeguard against arbitrary arrest and detention provided under Article 22.
7. The Central Vigilance Commission submits an annual report on its activities to:
[A] Home Ministry
[B] Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
[C] Parliament
[D] President
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions]
Notes:
The Central Vigilance Commission submits an annual report on its activities to the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
8. Which important human right is protected in Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
[A] Right to Equality
[B] Right to Freedom of Religion
[C] Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
[D] Right to life and liberty
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Right to life and liberty]
Notes:
Article 21 states that no one maybe deprived of their life or liberty unless it is by due procedure of law. In the first 25 years or so, this Article was very narrowly interpreted by the Supreme Court to mean that no matter what the procedure of law stated, as long as it was followed, deprivation of one’s life and liberty was not illegal.
9. Fundamental duties are mentioned in which of the following parts of Indian Constitution?
[A] Part IV A
[B] Part III
[C] Part II
[D] Part V
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Part IV A]
Notes:
The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These duties set out in Part IV–A of the Constitution, concern individuals and the nation.
10. Which of the following Amendments is also known as the ‘Mini Constitution’ of India?
[A] 44th Amendment
[B] 7th Amendment
[C] 74th Amendment
[D] 42nd Amendment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [42nd Amendment]
Notes:
The 42nd amendment to Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution (Forty-second amendment) Act, 1976, was enacted during the Emergency (25 June 1975 – 21 March 1977) by the Indian National Congress government headed by Indira Gandhi. It laid down the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens to the nation.
