Indian Polity & Constitution MCQs
Indian Polity & Constitution Objective / Multiple Choice (MCQs) Questions for Preparation of SSC-CGL, UPSC Civil Services, NDA, CDS, Railways and State Level Public Services Examinations.
1. The accounts of which of the following are not audited by CAG?
[A] Municipal institutions
[B] State Governments
[C] Government Companies
[D] Central Government
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Municipal institutions]
Notes:
Comptroller and Auditor General of India audits the receipts and expenditure of State Governments, Government Companies and Central Government. The audit of local bodies is not done by CAG.
2. Section 28 A of the Representation of the People Act provides for registration of Political parties by the election commission of India. This act was enacted in which year ?
[A] 1948
[B] 1949
[C] 1950
[D] 1951
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [1951]
Notes:
Articles 324 to 329 of Part XV of the Indian Constitution provides for the country’s electoral system. Representation of the People Act 1951 was enacted in order to regulate elections in the country.
3. What is the concept of Lokpal / Lokayukta Office in India based upon?
[A] Parliamentary Commissioner in the United Kingdom
[B] Ombudsman in the Scandinavian countries
[C] Council of State in France
[D] Council of State in Germany
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Ombudsman in the Scandinavian countries]
Notes:
The Lokpal and Lokayukta Office in India was conceptualized based on the Office of Ombudsman in Scandinavian nations. These Ombudsman roles serve as governmental watchdogs, participating in the regulation of public administration.
4. In which of the following the basic aims and objectives of the constitution are discussed ?
[A] Part-I
[B] Schedule-I
[C] Part-II
[D] Preamble
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Preamble]
Notes:
The basic aims and objectives of the constitution of India are discussed in the preamble. Preamble is also the source from which the document derives its authority, and meaning.
5. The “Bill of Rights” and “Judicial Review” are features of which of the following countries constitution?
[A] USA
[B] UK
[C] Germany
[D] Australia
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [USA]
Notes:
The “Bill of rights” and “Judicial Review” are features of constitution of United States.
6. Zero hour in the Indian parliament starts at which of the following time?
[A] 10.00 AM
[B] 12.00 PM
[C] 12.00 AM
[D] 2.00 PM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [12.00 PM]
Notes:
The zero hour in the Indian Parliament starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day is taken up.
7. Which of the following presidents of India headed the Indian Society of Labour Economics (ISLE) founded in 1957 ?
[A] Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
[B] V. V. Giri
[C] Zakir Hussain
[D] BD Jatti
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [V. V. Giri]
Notes:
Indian Society of Labour Economics was founded in 1957 by a distinguished group of academicians and public men engaged in promoting the study of labour and industrial relations. The group was headed by the ex-President of India Shri V.V. Giri and comprised of some of the biggest names in academia.
8. In which of the following states, Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were used for the first time in India?
[A] Karnataka
[B] Kerala
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] West Bengal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Kerala]
Notes:
The Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were used for the first time in part of Parur Assembly Constituency in Kerala in 1982, on experimental basis. Later, the extensive use of EVMs started in 1998.
9. Who among the following appoints/ nominates the chairperson of the National Commission for Women?
[A] President
[B] Central Government
[C] Vice President
[D] President on recommendation of a Parliament committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Central Government]
Notes:
Chairperson of the National Commission for Women is appointed by Central Government.
10. What is the maximum number of candidates which EVMs (Electronic Voting Machine) can cater to?
[A] 32
[B] 64
[C] 78
[D] 100
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [64]
Notes:
EVMs can cater to a maximum of 64 candidates. There is provision for 16 candidates in a Balloting Unit. If the total number of candidates exceeds 16, a second Balloting Unit can be linked parallel to the first Balloting Unit. Similarly, if the total number of candidates exceeds 32, a third Balloting Unit can be attached and if the total number of candidates exceeds 48, a fourth Balloting Unit can be attached to cater to a maximum of 64 candidates.
