Indian Polity & Constitution MCQs
Indian Polity & Constitution Objective / Multiple Choice (MCQs) Questions for Preparation of SSC-CGL, UPSC Civil Services, NDA, CDS, Railways and State Level Public Services Examinations.
1. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with its amendment?
[A] Part XX
[B] Part VIII
[C] Part XIII
[D] Part XIX
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Part XX]
Notes:
Part XX of the Constitution of India has only one article that is Article 368 that deals with the amendment of the Constitution.
2. Which among the following amendments of Constitution of India had accorded precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
[A] 25th
[B] 42nd
[C] 59th
[D] 44th
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [42nd]
Notes:
42nd Amendment gave primacy to the Directive Principles, by stating that “no law implementing any of the Directive Principles could be declared unconstitutional on the grounds that it violated any of the Fundamental Rights”.
3. In which year Dogri language was included in the eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution?
[A] 2001
[B] 2002
[C] 2003
[D] 2004
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [2003]
Notes:
Ninety-Second Amendment Act, 2003 included four languages in the Eighth Schedule viz. Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Maithili (Maithili) and Santhali. With this, the total number of constitutionally recognised languages increased to current 22.
4. Regarding the “starred questions” asked during Question Hour of Parliament , which among the following is true?
[A] Oral Answer is required to be given by the minister on floor of the house and supplementary questions may be asked on Minister’s reply
[B] Oral Answer is required to be given by the minister on floor of the house and supplementary questions may not be asked on Minister’s reply
[C] Written Answer is to be given by the minister after 10 days notice and no supplementary question may be asked
[D] None of the above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Oral Answer is required to be given by the minister on floor of the house and supplementary questions may be asked on Minister’s reply]
Notes:
Starred Questions are those for which an oral answer is expected. The member is allowed to ask a supplementary question, with the permission of the Speaker, after the reply is obtained from the Minister concerned. Non-starred questions are those for which a written reply is expected. After the reply has been provided, no supplementary question can be asked. A notice period is to be given to the minister to reply to a question. However, if a Member seeks to ask a question urgently and cannot wait for the duration of the notice period, then the member can do so provided it is accepted by the Speaker. Such questions are called supplementary questions.
5. Which among the following is true regarding amendments of the constitution with provisions which affect the federal character of the constitution?
[A] They can be amended by a simple majority
[B] They can be amended by a 2/3 majority of both the houses of parliament
[C] They can be amended by not only a 2/3 majority of the parliament but also ratification by at least 1/2 of the states
[D] All are correct
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [They can be amended by not only a 2/3 majority of the parliament but also ratification by at least 1/2 of the states]
Notes:
The amendments which affect the federal character of the constitution need to be passed by special majority of the parliament and also need ratification by half of the State Legislatures.
6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding parliamentary system in India?
[A] Executive is responsible to the Legislature
[B] Legislature is responsible to the Executive
[C] Executive is responsible to the people
[D] Executive is responsible to the judicary
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Executive is responsible to the Legislature]
Notes:
The Constitution of India states that the in a parliamentary system, the Executive branch of the State (Council of Ministers) shall be collectively responsible to the Legislature (House of the People).
7. Which article deals with the procedure for amendment of the Indian Constitution?
[A] Article 356
[B] Article 360
[C] Article 365
[D] Article 368
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Article 368]
Notes:
The Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with the procedure for amendment of the Indian Constitution. Article 368 cannot be used to destroy or damage the basic elements or the fundamental features of the Constitution.
8. Which amendment of the constitution added Administrative Tribunals?
[A] 42nd amendment act
[B] 44th amendment act
[C] 46th amendment act
[D] 49th amendment act
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [42nd amendment act]
Notes:
Constitution (42nd) Amendment added a new part XIVA to the Constitution for Tribunals: Administrative Tribunals (Art 323A) and Tribunals for other purpose (Art 323B).
9. Which of the following president of India was only person to be elected unopposed?
[A] 4th President
[B] 5th President
[C] 6th President
[D] 7th President
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [6th President]
Notes:
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the only person to be elected unopposed. He was sixth president of India.
10. Who called Indian people as “a single people living under a single imperium derived from a single source”?
[A] Jawaharlal Nehru
[B] Vallabhbhai Patel
[C] Dr. B R Ambedkar
[D] Mahatma Gandhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Dr. B R Ambedkar]
Notes:
Dr. Ambedkar had said the following words regarding India being Union of the states. “The use of the word Union is deliberate. The Drafting Committee wanted to make it clear that though India was to be a federation, the federation was not a result of an agreement by the States to join in the federation and that the federation not being the result of an agreement, no state has a right to secede from it. Though the country and the people may be divided into different states for convenience of administration the whole country is one integral whole, its people a single people living under a single imperium derived from a single source.“
